this post was submitted on 18 Jul 2024
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[–] cyborganism@lemmy.ca 52 points 4 months ago (3 children)

Not entirely.

Germany wasn't having a very successful economy when Nazism started.

Nor did Italy or Spain.

[–] kittenzrulz123@lemmy.blahaj.zone 48 points 4 months ago (1 children)

That relies on the assumption that what's good for the economy is good for the capitalists, they always make sure that capitalism occasionally goes up in flames to take advantage of social unrest.

[–] JustEnoughDucks@feddit.nl 4 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

Considering the capitalists have forced the world to arbitrarily measure the "economy" by measuring how willing rich people are to play in the rich man casino...

[–] agressivelyPassive@feddit.de 25 points 4 months ago

That's the point.

In Germany there was a battle between left and right back then. The economy boomed in the 20s and faltered in the 30s. Capitalists saw the threat of socialism looming just behind Poland and so they supported fascism.

The Nazis funneled billions into large businesses. It was unsustainable and morally multi-level wrong, but they skimmed a lot of profits from these agreements. They got rich, while the economy started to collapse - even before the war.

Even after the war, most of them got away. They kept much of their wealth.

[–] comfy@lemmy.ml 5 points 4 months ago

In fact, fascism often gains support from middle class desperation, with the blessing of the booj who prefer it over communism (which tends to rise from the lower classes during similar times of desperation)