this post was submitted on 11 Oct 2023
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submitted 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) by hypertown@lemmy.world to c/memes@lemmy.ml
 
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[–] ThatWeirdGuy1001@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (3 children)

I know I'm bad at math but I don't understand how 2x0=0 but 2^0=1

How are they different answers when they're both essentially multiplying 2 by zero?

Someone with a bigger brain please explain this

Edit: I greatly appreciate all the explanations but all they've done is solidify the fact that I'll never be good at math 😭

[–] jendrik@discuss.tchncs.de 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

subtracting one from Exponent means halving (when the base is two):

2⁴ = 16 2³ = 8 2² = 4 2¹ = 2 2⁰ = 1

It's a simple continuation of the pattern and required for mathemarical rules to work.

[–] uberrice@feddit.de 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

This is confidently wrong.

3^0 is also 1. 2738394728^0 is also 1.

Edit: just saw that technically you're correct - sure.

IF base 2, Exponent reduction equals to halving - dividing by 2.

For x^y reducing y by one is equal to dividing by x, then we have the proof it always works.

[–] Globulart@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

This isn't strictly speaking a proof, but it did help me to accept it as it demonstrates the function that makes it 1.

2^3 = 2x2x2

2^2 = 2x2

(2^3)/(2^2) = (2x2x2)/(2x2) = 2

= 2^(3-2)

In general terms:

(x^a)/(x^b) = x^(a-b)

If a and b are the same number this is x^0 and obviously (x^a)/(x^a) is one because anything divided by itself is 1.

Hope that helps

[–] hemmes@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Yes, of course, obviously...JFC, what??

[–] Flumsy@feddit.de 0 points 1 year ago

That was pretty complicated, here is a simpler answer I hsve come up with:

1=(2x2x2)/(2x2x2)=2³/2³=2³⁻³=2⁰

If that makes sense to you...

[–] iamkindasomeone@feddit.de 0 points 1 year ago

Its not the same. And theres proof, why.