this post was submitted on 07 Jul 2024
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Maybe I'm tired but this comment reads to me as if you're disagreeing with me when everything you say supports what I said? My objection/question was how you came to the conclusion it's a US/UK thing. There's no support for that in the article.
We can both be tired, it's OK.
I based it on this
In her 1918 paper, "A Psycho-Analytic Study of August Comte" she writes:
Not only did she change the spelling of the word, but she also changed the definition!
That's what I'm saying! It does not say anywhere that it's spelled extrAverted in the UK. If anything it says the exact opposite.
(emphasis mine)